Câu 48: USMLE: United States Medical Licensing Examination
A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a follow-up examination. The use of various conventional nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs has been ineffective. Sulfasalazine treatment also has not resulted in improvement. The most appropriate next step in treatment is administration…
Nội dung câu hỏi
A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a follow-up examination. The use of various conventional nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs has been ineffective. Sulfasalazine treatment also has not resulted in improvement. The most appropriate next step in treatment is administration of a drug that inhibits which of the following?
Các lựa chọn
Đáp án được giữ gọn theo nhãn A, B, C, D trong phần bình chọn tương tác.
- A. CD
- B. Cyclooxygenase-2
- C. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4
- D. Epidermal growth factor
- E. nterleukin-1 (IL-1)
- F. Tumor necrosis factor ־± — đáp án hiện tại
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