Câu 158: PMI Risk Management Professional

A two-year project with a budget of US$2 million has completed about 60% of the work at the end of the first year. The actual cost incurred to complete the remaining 40% of work is about US$1.5 million. As a part of performing a specialized risk analysis, the calculated schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.2 and cost performance index (CPI) is 0.53. How should the risk manager interpret such a low CPI value?

1. A. The cost control processes are not effective.
2. B. There is a problem with the cost baseline.
3. C. The actual reported costs are not accurate.
4. D. The cost related risks are not effectively managed. — đáp án hiện tại